Welcome to Bible Answers
DOCTRINE QUESTION 96
In Isaiah 8:20 we read, "To the law and the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them." Does that mean these new translations?
The verse mentioned has to do with evil seducing spirits of the previous verse. The remnant of faithfuls were told that they would be told to seek a word from those who had a familiar spirit. These were people that supposedly talked with the dead. He then goes on to say, if "they" (those with the familiar spirits) speak not what is in the law and testimony (the word of God) it is because there is no light (understanding) in them.
This is the meaning of the verse; but there is no limit to its proper application. It could apply in many circumstances. Should one tell you that you can be saved by keeping the ten commandments, this verse would apply. It would apply to any error that is taught. When it comes to new translations, it most certainly could apply. Many of them have deleted anything that refers to the Deity of Christ. The Good News for Modern Man is not really good news at all. It says in John 1:1, before the world was created, The Word already existed; He was with God and was the same as God... This is misleading and would lead one to believe that though Christ existed in some form before He was only somewhat like God. The KJV clearly states that He "was God" This same translation deletes the blood and word redemption from many places. Ephesians 1:7, "In Whom we ~ have redemption through His blood"...King James Version. "For by the death of Christ we are set free" Good News for Modern Man. There is a vast difference between the death of Christ and the blood of Christ. His blood speaks of a sinless holy spotless life offered in sacrifice to God. The words "set free" do not do justice to the word redemption. Redemption means to loose by paying the price, His own precious blood. This ought not to be read by Christians along with the Living Bible. It is a paraphrase and never should be called a "bible." The KJV has been with us for nearly four hundred years and is all that our forefathers had. It has been proven reliable over this period of time and ought to be used by Christians. Some of the others would be good for references, but not the above mentioned.
All comments and questions to: Harold Smith
Updated January 27th, 2014 by Sandra Felix