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I was recently reading Matthew 9:8, and it created some confusion for me. Matthew 9:1-8 describes Jesus healing a paralytic. I am curious about Matthew 9:8, where the NIV says, "When the crowd saw this, they were filled with awe; and they praised God, who had given such authority to men." Jesus performed the healing but Matthew 1:8 discusses the "authority" being given to men. Why does it say this if Jesus is divine?

Jesus was God-Man, that is, both deity and human. Though He possessed all the attributes of God while in the flesh, He functioned as a man too. "How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth (that is His human name) with the Holy Ghost and power: who went about doing good,..." Acts 10:38. "...a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs,..." Acts 2:22 His manhood was absolutely necessary for His sacrificial death for our sins. He was tried and tested in all points just as we are, but He is apart from sin. (Hebrews 4:15]. His human life only proves who He really was, "Emmanuel,...God with us."

He had authority as the Son of man on earth to forgive sins. (Mark 2:10). Even today, His present work at the right hand of the Father in heaven, is as a man. "There is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the MAN Christ Jesus." 1 Timothy 2:5. His future work will also be as the Son of man. "...till they see the Son of man coming in His kingdom." Matthew 16:28.

Thank God, He came the first time. He came to give Himself a ransom for all. (1 Timothy 2:6). For all that trust Him, He will come to take them to be with Himself forever. (John 14:2-3).

What about you Dear Reader? Are you saved? Have you trust on Him?

All comments and questions to: Harold Smith

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Updated February 12th, 2014 by Sandra Felix